Let’s suppose that someone comes to you and asks for $100 so that he can buy a gun and kill someone. If you give him the money—with full knowledge of his intentions—and he in fact uses it to buy a gun and kills someone, does that make you an accomplice to murder?
What if instead of asking you for $100, he asks you for $50 and gets the other $50 from someone else? It seems to me that if you answered yes to the question above, then you are just as much an accomplice to murder in this case. The only real difference is that now there are two of you. Providing half the money doesn’t somehow make you only half an accomplice any more than it is possible to kill only half a person.
What if instead of asking two people for money to buy his gun, he asks several million, and instead of killing one person, he kills several thousand (or several hundred thousand over the course of a couple decades)?
What if instead of a person, he is a corporate institution called the United States Government?